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The SecOps Group CNSP Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic
Details

Topic 1

• This section of the exam measures skills of Network Engineers and explores the utility of widely used software for scanning, monitoring, and troubleshooting networks. It clarifies how these tools help in detecting intrusions and verifying security configurations.

Topic 2

• Testing Network Services

Topic 3

• Cryptography: This section of the exam measures the skills of Security Analysts and focuses on basic encryption and decryption methods used to protect data in transit and at rest. It includes an overview of algorithms, key management, and the role of cryptography in maintaining data confidentiality.

Topic 4

• Password Storage: This section of the exam measures the skills of Network Engineers and addresses safe handling of user credentials. It explains how hashing, salting, and secure storage methods can mitigate risks associated with password disclosure or theft.

Topic 5

• Network Discovery Protocols: This section of the exam measures the skills of Security Analysts and examines how protocols like ARP, ICMP, and SNMP enable the detection and mapping of network devices. It underlines their importance in security assessments and network monitoring.

Topic 6

• Open-Source Intelligence Gathering (OSINT): This section of the exam measures the skills of Security Analysts and discusses methods for collecting publicly available information on targets. It stresses the legal and ethical aspects of OSINT and its role in developing a thorough understanding of potential threats.

Topic 7

• This section of the exam measures the skills of Network Engineers and explains how to verify the security and performance of various services running on a network. It focuses on identifying weaknesses in configurations and protocols that could lead to unauthorized access or data leaks.

Topic 8

• TCP
• IP (Protocols and Networking Basics): This section of the exam measures the skills of Security Analysts and covers the fundamental principles of TCP
• IP, explaining how data moves through different layers of the network. It emphasizes the roles of protocols in enabling communication between devices and sets the foundation for understanding more advanced topics.

Topic 9

• Network Scanning & Fingerprinting: This section of the exam measures the skills of Security Analysts and covers techniques for probing and analyzing network hosts to gather details about open ports, operating systems, and potential vulnerabilities. It emphasizes ethical and legal considerations when performing scans.

Topic 10

• Network Security Tools and Frameworks (such as Nmap, Wireshark, etc)

Topic 11

• Active Directory Security Basics: This section of the exam measures the skills of Network Engineers and introduces the fundamental concepts of directory services, highlighting potential security risks and the measures needed to protect identity and access management systems in a Windows environment.

Topic 12

• Basic Malware Analysis: This section of the exam measures the skills of Network Engineers and offers an introduction to identifying malicious software. It covers simple analysis methods for recognizing malware behavior and the importance of containment strategies in preventing widespread infection.

 

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The SecOps Group Certified Network Security Practitioner Sample Questions (Q17-Q22):

NEW QUESTION # 17
In a Linux-based architecture, what does the /mnt directory contain?

• A. Temporary-mounted filesystems
• B. System configuration files and initialization scripts
• C. Loadable driver modules needed to boot the system
• D. System files which represent the current state of the kernel

Answer: A

Explanation:
The Linux Filesystem Hierarchy Standard (FHS), per FHS 3.0, defines directory purposes:
/mnt: Designated for temporarily mounted filesystems, typically by system administrators.
Use: Mount points for removable media (e.g., USB drives: mount /dev/sdb1 /mnt/usb) or network shares (e.g., NFS).
Nature: Transient, user-managed, not persistent across reboots (unlike /etc/fstab mounts).
Contrast:
/media: Auto-mounts removable devices (e.g., by desktop environments like GNOME).
/mnt vs. /media: /mnt is manual, /media is system-driven.
Technical Details:
Empty by default; subdirectories (e.g., /mnt/usb) are created as needed.
Permissions: Typically root-owned (0755), requiring sudo for mounts.
Security Implications: Misconfigured /mnt mounts (e.g., world-writable) risk unauthorized access. CNSP likely covers mount security (e.g., nosuid option).
Why other options are incorrect:
B . System config/init scripts: Found in /etc (e.g., /etc/passwd, /etc/init.d).
C . Driver modules: Located in /lib/modules/<kernel-version>.
D . Kernel state: Resides in /proc (e.g., /proc/cpuinfo).
Real-World Context: Admins mount ISOs at /mnt during server provisioning (e.g., mount -o loop image.iso /mnt).

 

NEW QUESTION # 18
What RID is given to an Administrator account on a Microsoft Windows machine?

• A. 0
• B. 1
• C. 2
• D. 3

Answer: B

Explanation:
In Windows, security principals (users, groups) are identified by a Security Identifier (SID), formatted as S-1-<authority>-<domain>-<RID>. The RID (Relative Identifier) is the final component, unique within a domain or machine. For local accounts:
RID 500: Assigned to the built-in Administrator account on every Windows machine (e.g., S-1-5-21-<machine>-500).
Created during OS install, with full system privileges.
Disabled by default in newer Windows versions (e.g., 10/11) unless explicitly enabled.
RID 501: Guest account (e.g., S-1-5-21-<machine>-501), limited access.
Technical Details:
Stored in SAM (C:WindowsSystem32configSAM).
Enumeration: Tools like wmic useraccount or net user reveal RIDs.
Domain Context: Domain Admins use RID 512, but the question specifies a local machine.
Security Implications: RID 500 is a prime target for brute-forcing or pass-the-hash attacks (e.g., Mimikatz). CNSP likely advises renaming/disabling it (e.g., via GPO).
Why other options are incorrect:
A . 0: Reserved (e.g., Null SID, S-1-0-0), not a user RID.
C . 501: Guest, not Administrator.
D . 100: Invalid; local user RIDs start at 1000 (e.g., custom accounts).
Real-World Context: Post-compromise, attackers query RID 500 (e.g., net user Administrator) for privilege escalation.

 

NEW QUESTION # 19
You are performing a security audit on a company's network infrastructure and have discovered the SNMP community string set to the default value of "public" on several devices. What security risks could this pose, and how might you exploit it?

• A. The potential risk is that an attacker could use the SNMP protocol to modify the devices' configuration settings. You might use a tool like Snmpset to change the settings.
• B. Both A and B.
• C. The potential risk is that an attacker could use the SNMP protocol to gather sensitive information about the devices. You might use a tool like Snmpwalk to query the devices for information.
• D. None of the above.

Answer: C

Explanation:
SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) uses community strings as a basic form of authentication. The default read-only community string "public" is widely known, and if left unchanged, it exposes devices to unauthorized access. The primary risk with "public" is information disclosure, as it typically grants read-only access, allowing attackers to gather sensitive data (e.g., device configurations, network topology) without altering settings.
Why A is correct: With the "public" string, an attacker can use tools like snmpwalk to enumerate device details (e.g., system uptime, interfaces, or software versions) via SNMP queries. This aligns with CNSP's focus on reconnaissance risks during security audits, emphasizing the danger of default credentials enabling passive data collection.
Why other options are incorrect:
B: While modifying settings is a risk with SNMP, the default "public" string is typically read-only. Changing configurations requires a read-write community string (e.g., "private"), which isn't implied here. Thus, snmpset would not work with "public" alone.
C: Since B is incorrect in this context, C (both A and B) cannot be the answer.
D: The risk in A is valid, so "none of the above" is incorrect.

 

NEW QUESTION # 20
What user account is required to create a Golden Ticket in Active Directory?

• A. KRBTGT account
• B. Service account
• C. Domain User account
• D. Local User account

Answer: A

Explanation:
A Golden Ticket is a forged Kerberos Ticket-Granting Ticket (TGT) in Active Directory (AD), granting an attacker unrestricted access to domain resources by impersonating any user (e.g., with Domain Admin privileges). Kerberos, per RFC 4120, relies on the KRBTGT account-a built-in service account on every domain controller-to encrypt and sign TGTs. To forge a Golden Ticket, an attacker needs:
The KRBTGT password hash (NTLM or Kerberos key), typically extracted from a domain controller's memory using tools like Mimikatz.
Additional domain details (e.g., SID, domain name).
Process:
Compromise a domain controller (e.g., via privilege escalation).
Extract the KRBTGT hash (e.g., lsadump::dcsync /user:krbtgt).
Forge a TGT with arbitrary privileges using the hash (e.g., Mimikatz's kerberos::golden command).
The KRBTGT account itself isn't "used" to create the ticket; its hash is the key ingredient. Unlike legitimate TGTs issued by the KDC, a Golden Ticket bypasses authentication checks, persisting until the KRBTGT password is reset (a rare event in most environments). CNSP likely highlights this as a high-severity AD attack vector.
Why other options are incorrect:
A . Local User account: Local accounts are machine-specific, lack domain privileges, and can't access the KRBTGT hash stored on domain controllers.
B . Domain User account: A standard user has no inherent access to domain controller credentials or the KRBTGT hash without escalation.
C . Service account: While service accounts may have elevated privileges, they don't automatically provide the KRBTGT hash unless compromised to domain admin level-still insufficient without targeting KRBTGT specifically.
Real-World Context: The 2014 Sony Pictures hack leveraged Golden Tickets, emphasizing the need for KRBTGT hash rotation post-breach (a complex remediation step).

 

NEW QUESTION # 21
A system encrypts data prior to transmitting it over a network, and the system on the other end of the transmission media decrypts it. If the systems are using a symmetric encryption algorithm for encryption and decryption, which of the following statements is true?

• A. A symmetric encryption algorithm is an insecure method used to encrypt data transmitted over transmission media.
• B. A symmetric encryption algorithm uses different keys to encrypt and decrypt data at both ends of the transmission media.
• C. A symmetric encryption algorithm uses the same key to encrypt and decrypt data at both ends of the transmission media.
• D. A symmetric encryption algorithm does not use keys to encrypt and decrypt data at both ends of the transmission media.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Symmetric encryption is a cryptographic technique where the same key is used for both encryption and decryption processes. In the context of network security, when data is encrypted prior to transmission and decrypted at the receiving end using a symmetric encryption algorithm (e.g., AES or Triple-DES), both the sender and receiver must share and utilize an identical secret key. This key is applied by the sender to transform plaintext into ciphertext and by the receiver to reverse the process, recovering the original plaintext. The efficiency of symmetric encryption makes it ideal for securing large volumes of data transmitted over networks, provided the key is securely distributed and managed.
Why A is correct: Option A accurately describes the fundamental property of symmetric encryption-using a single shared key for both encryption and decryption. This aligns with CNSP documentation, which emphasizes symmetric encryption's role in securing data in transit (e.g., via VPNs or secure file transfers).
Why other options are incorrect:
B: This describes asymmetric encryption (e.g., RSA), where different keys (public and private) are used for encryption and decryption, not symmetric encryption.
C: Symmetric encryption inherently relies on keys; the absence of keys contradicts its definition and operational mechanism.
D: Symmetric encryption is not inherently insecure; its security depends on key strength and management practices, not the algorithm itself. CNSP highlights that algorithms like AES are widely regarded as secure when implemented correctly.

 

NEW QUESTION # 22
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